5 questions will be shown from 30 free practice questions to prepare you for the CFA level 2 exam. Enjoy!
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1. In the discussion of residual income valuation, which analyst makes the most accurate statement?
Chance’s statement is the most accurate. When cash flows are negative in the analyst’s comfortable forecast time horizon, the RI model is most appropriate. Residual income is sometimes called economic profit because it estimates the company’s profit after deducting the cost of all capital. The RI model is less sensitive to estimates of ter- minal value than discounted dividend or cash flow models. Tinker is incorrect: Residual income is sometimes called economic profit because it is an estimate of the profit of the company after deducting the cost of all capital. . Evers is incorrect: The residual income model is less sensitive to estimates of terminal value than discounted dividend or cash flow models.
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2. Is Annisquam most likely correct in regard to his comments on calibrating a binomial interest rate tree?
. Annisquam is correct with regards to his comments on calibrating a binomial interest rate tree. because his comments are correct. because his comments are correct.
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3. In sharing her research material with the subject companies, LeCompte most likely violated CFA Institute Research Objectivity Standards with respect to her report(s) on:
LeCompte violated Requirement 6, Relationships with Subject Companies, by sharing the full research report with NanoMem. Sharing any section of a research report that might communicate the analyst’s proposed recommendation, rating, or price target is prohibited by the Research Objectivity Standards. Sharing historical factual information, on the other hand, is not a violation. LeCompte shared with UniFlash management only the part of her report on UniFlash that provides factual information.
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4. Which of Annisquam’s comments regarding binomial interest rate trees is least likely correct?
. Annisquam is incorrect in Comment 1. The interest rate tree performs two functions in the valuation process: (1) generating the cash flows that are interest rate dependent and (2) supplying the interest rates used to determine the present value of the cash flows. because Comment 3 is correct. because Comment 2 is correct.
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5. The mark-to-market value for Drawbridge’s forward position is closest to:
. 1 Drawbridge sold AUD 5 million forward to the settlement date at an all-in forward price of 0.8940 (USD/AUD). 2 To mark the position to market, Drawbridge offsets the forward transaction by buying AUD 5 million three months forward to the settlement date. 3 For the offsetting forward contract, because the AUD is the base currency in the USD/AUD quote, buying AUD forward means paying the offer for both the spot rate and forward points. I. The all-in three-month forward rate is calculated as 0.9066 – 0.00364 = 0.90296 II. This gives a net cash flow on settlement day of 5,000,000 × (0.8940 – 0.90296) = –USD44,800 (This is a cash outflow because Drawbridge sold the AUD for- ward and the AUD appreciated against the USD). 4 To determine the mark-to-market value of the original forward position, calculate the present value of the USD cash outflow using the three-month USD discount rate: –USD44,8000/[1 + 0.0023(90/360)] = –USD44,774. . The present value of the cash flow was not calculated (step 4 of calculation). . The cash flow was calculated using the bid rate instead of the offer rate. 1 The all-in three-month forward rate = 0.9062 – 0.00368 = 0.90252 2 This gives a net cash flow on settlement day of 5,000,000 × (0.8940 – 0.90252) = – USD42,600, and the present value is calculated as –USD42,600/[1 + 0.0023(90/360)] = –USD42,576.
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腦海中有大膽的想法嗎分別並告訴我們
腦海中有大膽的想法嗎